[ref001] God Is Omniscient? [ref002] God Is Omniscient? Elsewhere in this issue (pp. 9, 16

[ref001]
God Is Omniscient?
[ref002]




God Is Omniscient?


Elsewhere in this issue (pp. 9, 16), we discussed inconsistencies
in the biblical claim that God cannot be tempted ([ref003]James 1:13)
and the fact that the Bible also claims that although Jesus was
God ([ref004]John 1:1, 14),
he was nevertheless tempted ([ref005]Mark 1:12-13;
[ref006]Heb. 5:14-15).
If we accept the premise that Jesus actually was God incarnate,
we have another inconsistency between the passages that teach
that God is omniscient or all-knowing ([ref007]Ps. 147:5)
and other passages that indicate that Jesus didn't know certain
things.

In summarizing the childhood of Jesus, Luke said that he "increased
in wisdom and stature, and in favor with God and men" ([ref008]2:3),
but if Jesus were truly an omniscient deity, how could he possibly
have "increased in wisdom"? To increase one's wisdom
is to increase one's knowledge, so if Jesus increased in wisdom,
he couldn't have been omniscient when he began to increase his
wisdom. Yet we are asked to believe that Jesus was the omniscient
god who made all things ([ref009]Col. 1:16).

In speaking to the apostles about the time of his second coming,
Jesus said, "But about that day and hour no one knows, neither
the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father" ([ref010]Matt. 24:36).
The problem in this statement is obvious. If Jesus were an omniscient
deity, how could it possibly be that he would not know the day
and hour of his second coming? The issue of omniscience aside,
we might also ask how it could possibly be that the Father would
know something that the Son wouldn't know if the Father and the
Son were one and the same as the absurd doctrine of the trinity
teaches.

Some scribes must have recognized the problem that this passage
poses, because some Greek manuscripts of the New Testament made
no reference to "the Son" in this verse. The ASV, RSV,
NRSV, NIV, and other versions of the New Testament have a footnote
to inform readers that "some ancient authorities omit 'nor
the Son,'" and the KJV and NKJV omit the reference entirely.
However, the fact that "some ancient authorities" don't
mention "the Son" in this verse is of no benefit to
inerrantists, because the exact statement is in Mark's parallel
account of Jesus' discourse on his second coming ([ref011]13:32),
and there are no footnotes in Mark to inform us that "some
ancient authorities" omitted the reference to "the Son."
Hence, the problem remains. God is omniscient, Jesus was God,
yet Jesus didn't know when he would come again, even though the
Father, who is the same God that Jesus is (was) did know. Was
Peter wrong then when he said to Jesus, "Lord, You know all
things" ([ref012]John 21:17)?
And if Peter was right, were Matthew and Mark wrong when they
said that Jesus said there was at least one thing he didn't know?
And if there was even one thing that Jesus didn't know, how could
he have been an omniscient god?

Maybe some enterprising inerrantist can explain all this to us
dumb skeptics.



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[ref001] mailto:jlowder@atheist.tamu.edu
[ref002] http://freethought.tamu.edu/mag/sr/1995/1/1omni95.html
[ref003] http://www.calvin.edu/cgi-bin/bible?James+1:13
[ref004] http://www.calvin.edu/cgi-bin/bible?John+1:1-14
[ref005] http://www.calvin.edu/cgi-bin/bible?Mark+1:12-13
[ref006] http://www.calvin.edu/cgi-bin/bible?Hebrews+5:14-15
[ref007] http://www.calvin.edu/cgi-bin/bible?Psalms+147:5
[ref008] http://www.calvin.edu/cgi-bin/bible?Luke+2:3
[ref009] http://www.calvin.edu/cgi-bin/bible?Colossians+1:16
[ref010] http://www.calvin.edu/cgi-bin/bible?Matthew+24:36
[ref011] http://www.calvin.edu/cgi-bin/bible?Mark+13:32
[ref012] http://www.calvin.edu/cgi-bin/bible?John+21:17
[ref013] mailto:Jftill@aol.com
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